You have a patient who has medically intractable seizures and is interested in pursuing surgery. Phase 1 EEG documented left hemispheric seizure onset, most notably over the left temporal region. MRI is non-lesional. FDG-PET notes mild hypometabolism in the left temporal region. Neuropsychology notes mild verbal anterograde memory deficits. The Wada study, however, documents left hemisphere speech and language dominance, and intact left hemispheric memory functioning. Phase 2 EEG documents seizure onset from the left mesial temporal region. Which surgical approach would provide the greatest likelihood of seizure reduction and fewest consequences?

Deep brain stimulation has been FDA approved for treatment of epilepsy. What is the typical target location for DBS lead placement to treat epilepsy?

Which of the following conditions that can be associated with epilepsy is not considered to be a disorder of migrational development?